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- Lewis v Martin[2024] QSC 81
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Lewis v Martin[2024] QSC 81
Lewis v Martin[2024] QSC 81
SUPREME COURT OF QUEENSLAND
CITATION: | Lewis v Martin & Ors [2024] QSC 81 |
PARTIES: | CHRISTINE ANN LEWIS (plaintiff) v PRISCILLA MARTIN (first defendant) AND RAMSAY HEALTHCARE AUSTRALIA PTY LIMITED T/AS SUNSHINE COAST UNIVERSITY PRIVATE HOSPITAL (ABN 36 003 184 889) (second defendant) AND SUNSHINE COAST HOSPITAL AND HEALTH SERVICE (third defendant) |
FILE NO: | 13875 of 2021 |
DIVISION: | Trial Division |
PROCEEDING: | Application |
ORIGINATING COURT: | Supreme Court at Brisbane |
DELIVERED ON: | 17 May 2024 |
DELIVERED AT: | Brisbane |
HEARING DATE: | 19 April 2024 |
JUDGE: | Sullivan J |
ORDER: | The Order of the Court will be as follows:
|
CATCHWORDS: | PROCEDURE – CIVIL PROCEEDINGS IN STATE AND TERRITORY COURTS – PLEADINGS – GENERALLY – where the first defendant sought to strike out and disallow amendments contained in certain paragraphs of the Amended Statement of Claim – where the plaintiff brought a cross-application for leave to make the amendments – where the third defendant sought to strike out and disallow amendments contained in certain paragraphs of the Amended Statement of Claim – where the plaintiff brought a cross-application for leave to make the amendments – whether the application of the first defendant ought to be granted – whether the application of the third defendant ought to be granted – whether the plaintiff ought to be granted leave to make the amendments to the Amended Statement of Claim |
| Civil Liability Act 2003 (Qld) Civil Proceedings Act 2011 (Qld), s 16 Limitation of Actions Act 1974 (Qld), s 11 Personal Injuries Proceedings Act 2002 (Qld) Uniform Civil Procedure Rules 1999 (Qld), r 375, r 376, r 379 Allonnor Ply Ltd v Doran [1998] QCA 372 Australian Golf Management Corporation Pty Ltd v Logan City Council [2023] QSC 222 Borsato v Campbell [2006] QSC 191 Brisbane South Regional Authority v Taylor (1996) 186 CLR 541 Central Sawmilling No. 1 Pty Ltd & Ors v State of Queensland [2003] QCA 311 Cooke v Gill (1873) LR 8 CP 107 Draney v Barry [2002] 1 Qd R 145 Harnett v Hynes [2010] QCA 65 Hughes v Westpac Banking Corporation [2010] QSC 274 Paul v Westpac Banking Corporation [2017] 2 Qd R 96 Pianta v BHP Australia Coal Ltd [1996] 1 Qd R 65 Thomas v State of Queensland [2001] QCA 336 Wolfe v State of Queensland [2009] 1 Qd R 97 |
COUNSEL: | G Mullins KC with E Fitzgerald for the plaintiff A Luchich for the first defendant D Schneidewin for the third defendant |
SOLICITORS: | Shine Lawyers for the plaintiff Moray & Agnew Solicitors for the first defendant DWF (Australia) for the third defendant |
Introduction
- [1]There are four applications before the Court. They all relate to certain amendments contained in an Amended Statement of Claim filed on 2 June 2023.
- [2]The first application is brought by the first defendant pursuant to r 379 of the Uniform Civil Procedure Rules 1999 (Qld) (“UCPR”) to disallow and strike out the amendments contained in paragraphs 75(j) and 75A(c) of the Amended Statement of Claim. The second application is a cross-application brought by the plaintiff for leave to make those amendments pursuant to r 376 of the UCPR. The third application is brought by the third defendant pursuant to r 379 of the UCPR to disallow and strike out paragraphs 77(aaa) and 77A(a) of the proposed Amended Statement of Claim. The fourth application is a cross-application by the plaintiff for leave to make those amendments pursuant to r 376 of the UCPR.
- [3]As will be seen, the plaintiff is a former patient of the first defendant, who is a general surgeon. The third defendant is a public hospital where the plaintiff received medical care and at which surgery was undertaken by the first defendant.
- [4]It is uncontentious that each of the pairs of paragraphs which are the subject of consideration add new causes of action to the proceeding in the form of allegations of a failure to warn, inform and/or advise the plaintiff or her husband as to what was said to be treatment options, particularly the treatment option of an early/primary thoracotomy. It is otherwise pleaded without objection that, at the relevant time, the thoracotomy should have been recognised as the treatment option which should have been undertaken, but was not.
- [5]Given that the plaintiff has conceded that the amendments raise new causes of action, there remains two issues for consideration in order to dispose of the four applications.
- [6]The first is whether the new causes of action substantially arise out of facts already pleaded in respect of unobjected to causes of action.
- [7]The second issue arises only if the first issue is answered in the affirmative. In that situation, the issue is whether it is appropriate for the Court to exercise its discretion to allow the proposed amendments, taking into account relevant issues such as delay (including whether there is a reasonable explanation for the delay), prejudice, and futility.
Relevant statutory provisions and principles of law
- [8]The relevant statutory provisions may be summarised as follows.
- [9]Section 16 of the Civil Proceedings Act 2011 (Qld) (“CPA”) provides:
16 Amendment for new cause of action or party
(1) This section applies to an amendment of a claim, anything written on a claim, pleadings, an application or another document in a proceeding.
(2) The court may order an amendment to be made, or grant leave to a party to make an amendment, even though—
(a) the amendment will include or substitute a cause of action or add a new party; or
(b) the cause of action included or substituted arose after the proceeding was started; or
(c) a relevant period of limitation, current when the proceeding was started, has ended.
(3) Despite subsection (2), the rules of court may limit the circumstances in which amendments may be made.
(4) This section—
(a) applies despite the Limitation of Actions Act 1974; and
(b) does not limit section 103H.
- [10]As contemplated for by s 16(3) of the CPA, the UCPR limits the circumstances in which such amendments may be made.
- [11]Where the effect of an amendment is to include a new cause, the Court may grant leave to make those amendments pursuant to r 375 of the UCPR.
- [12]
- [13]Rule 376 of the UCPR provides:
376 Amendment after limitation period
(1) This rule applies in relation to an application, in a proceeding, for leave to make an amendment mentioned in this rule if a relevant period of limitation, current at the date the proceeding was started, has ended.
…
(4) The court may give leave to make an amendment to include a new cause of action only if—
(a) the court considers it appropriate; and
(b) the new cause of action arises out of the same facts or substantially the same facts as a cause of action for which relief has already been claimed in the proceeding by the party applying for leave to make the amendment.
- [14]For present purposes, the salient sub-rule is r 376(4) of the UCPR.
- [15]If leave has not been granted, then r 379 of the UCPR provides the power to strike out the offending amendments.
- [16]In respect of the first issue identified above, the authorities have provided some elucidation of what is meant by the words “the same facts or substantially the same facts as a cause of action for which relief has already been claimed in the proceedings”.
- [17]The phrase "substantially the same facts” was considered by Thomas JA in Draney v Barry as follows:[2]
“I do not think that “substantially the same facts" should be read as tantamount to the same facts, and consider that the need to prove some additional facts is not necessarily fatal to a favourable exercise of a discretion under r 376(4). If the necessary additional facts to support the new cause of action arise out of substantially the same story as that which would have to be told to support the original cause of action, the fact that there is a changed focus with elicitation of additional details should not of itself prevent a finding that the new cause of action arises out of substantially the same facts. In short, this particular requirement should not be seen as a straightjacket.”
- [18]In Thomas v State of Queensland, Keane JA observed that “the story” (as used by Thomas JA) is a shorthand reference to the matters that the plaintiff has to prove.[3]
- [19]In Paul v Westpac Banking Corporation, Fraser JA, with whom the other members of the Court of Appeal agreed, observed:[4]
“In an appropriate case, leave to amend to add a new cause of action which is statute-barred may be granted even though it involves reliance upon facts in addition to those out of which a pleaded cause of action arises, provided that those additional facts are substantially the same as facts already pleaded. The question in each case is whether the facts out of which a new cause of action arises are substantially the same as facts relied upon in a cause of action for which relief has already been claimed in the proceedings. As has been mentioned in other cases, this may involve questions of degree and fine judgment, but the answer to that question should be informed by an appreciation that the policies underlying the applicable statute of limitation may be inappropriately undermined if the required analysis is conducted at too high a level of generality. If those underlying policies are not threatened by a proposed amendment, the test in UCPR r 376(4)(b) may be found to be satisfied even though the new claim involves some variation in the facts. This approach is consistent with the careful way in which the Rule has generally been applied since it was enacted.”
- [20]In Allonnor Pty Ltd v Doran,[5] McPherson JA, in distinguishing an earlier decision of Pianta v BHP Australia Coal Ltd,[6] noted that the addition of an allegation of a further injury suffered later in the day to the pleaded cause of action, was one that arose out of substantially the same facts. In contrast, the two incidents in Pianta were five months apart and were alleged to have been caused by activities that were substantially different. While McPherson JA noted that distinguishing the two cases “in that way is necessarily somewhat rough and ready”, his Honour observed:[7]
“But it accords with the approach adopted in the United States when similar questions arise in the context of limitation statutes. The policies underlying such statutes are, it is said, not “threatened by an amendment that merely adds a ground of recovery or defence arising out of a transaction or occurrence already in suit”.
- [21]In Borsato v Campbell [2006] QSC 191, it was held that the addition of failure to warn causes of action against certain defendants[8] did not arise out of substantially the same facts of an existing cause of action.[9] His Honour McMurdo J did not greatly elucidate on why that was so on the facts of that particular case. However, at paragraph [15], when dealing with whether the amendments gave rise to a new cause of action, his Honour concluded that the new pleaded facts in that case raised a quite different counter factual case with a consequentially different amount of damages because the damage was different. His Honour identified that whether the amendments arose out of substantially the same facts is a question of degree. I accept the submission of Counsel for the third defendant that the conclusions in paragraph [15] likely played an important role in his Honour’s conclusion that the question was to be answered in the negative.
- [22]Each case must turn on its own facts and an assessment of what is already pleaded without objection.
- [23]Turning then to the second issue, it is r 376(4)(a) of the UCPR that is relevant. The following principles can be derived from the authorities on this second issue.
- [24]Whether it is appropriate to give leave will depend on consideration of issues such as prejudice, delay (coupled with whether there is an appropriate explanation for that delay), the cost that may be occasioned to a defendant in having to investigate the new matters and any other relevant issue.[10]
- [25]It is the plaintiff who has the onus of establishing that it is appropriate to grant leave for the amendments to be made.
Background
- [26]The following summary of the background facts arising from the pleadings was accepted by all parties as accurate. In the footnotes to that summary there are descriptions of the terms ‘mediastinum’ and ‘vasoplegia’. Those footnoted descriptions are not themselves contained in the pleadings. However, all parties accept the descriptions given are accurate.
- [27]Within this summary of the background facts below, I will indicate in bold where the objected to allegations are said to be generally chronologically positioned. With those qualifications, the summary is as follows.
- [28]
- [29]The plaintiff alleges[12] that the first defendant contracted with the plaintiff for the provision of medical services in return for a fee. She also alleges that it was an implied term of the contract, and it was the first defendant’s duty of care, to exercise reasonable care and skill in the provision of medical services to the plaintiff.
- [30]The first defendant admits that she was a general surgeon and that she contracted with the plaintiff for the provision of medical services, but that those services were limited to the first defendant's private capacity prior to the plaintiff becoming a public patient of the third defendant. The first defendant also admits that when there was a contract between the first defendant and the plaintiff, there was an implied term to exercise reasonable care and skill in the provision of medical services, subject to the operation of the Civil Liability Act 2003 (Qld) (“CLA”).[13]
- [31]The plaintiff alleges that the third defendant operated the Sunshine Coast University Hospital (“SCUH”). It offered and provided medical, surgical, specialist, nursing and other treatment for members of the public including the plaintiff and owed her a duty of care to exercise reasonable care in the provision of medical treatment.[14]
- [32]The third defendant admits that it owed the plaintiff a duty of care, subject to the operation of certain provisions of the CLA that are not relevant for the purposes of this application.[15]
- [33]In late 2018, the plaintiff was referred to the first defendant for symptoms associated with gastro-oesophageal reflux. On 29 August 2018, the plaintiff underwent a barium swallow which indicated that there was a “moderate sized hiatus hernia with free gastro-oesophageal reflux and reduced oesophageal peristalsis with mild dilation of the oesophagus.”[16]
- [34]The plaintiff was referred to the first defendant and, on her recommendation, underwent a laparoscopic hiatus hernia repair and fundoplication at the Sunshine Coast University Private Hospital (“SCUPH”)[17] (“the first surgery”).
- [35]The plaintiff was returned to the ward at the SCUPH at about 2.00 pm on 7 December 2018. Over the ensuing 48 hours, the plaintiff alleges that she developed symptoms of vomiting, difficulty swallowing, hypertension, poor appetite and feeling generally unwell. She was visited by the first defendant on more than one occasion and continued to be managed by her.
- [36]On 9 December 2018 at about 12.20 pm, a rapid response (MET) call was made because the plaintiff was reporting chest pain and increasing respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute.[18]
- [37]At about 1.20 pm on 9 December 2021, the plaintiff underwent a CT angiogram at the request of the first defendant which revealed a sizable posterior mediastinal collection[19] from the diaphragmatic hiatus to the level of the Tazygos vein with approximately 15 centimetre craniocaudal extent. The mediastinal collection had the dimension of 9.7 centimetres by 5.2 centimetres.[20]
- [38]The plaintiff was urgently transferred to the SCUPH Intensive Care Unit before being admitted to the SCH at about 3.35 pm.
- [39]It is broadly at this point that the new allegations of failing to warn, inform or advise the plaintiff are said to have occurred.
- [40]At about 3.40 pm on 9 December 2018, the plaintiff was transferred to the operating theatre at the SCUH and underwent a laparoscopy, oversew perforation and venting gastrostomy performed by the first defendant (“the second surgery”).
- [41]During the second surgery, the plaintiff suffered an aspiration event and suffered a reduction in her white cell count to 2.5, in addition to high airway pressures which were likely attributable to her pneumoperitoneum extending to thoracic cavity. The plaintiff alleges she also developed vasoplegia,[21] which is not admitted by the first defendant, although no positive case is asserted to the contrary.[22]
- [42]Over the ensuing days, the plaintiff alleges that she suffered from audible wheezing and intermittent respiratory distress; intermittent tachycardia and persistent hypertension; intermittent febrile temperatures and increased white cell count.
- [43]On 18 December 2018, the plaintiff underwent an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy which revealed a perforation in the lower third of the oesophagus. Following the endoscopy, the plaintiff underwent a right thoracotomy and drainage of the mediastinal collection.
- [44]The plaintiff remained in the ICU until 24 December 2018. She remained in hospital until 9 February 2019. She alleges that from that time onwards, she experienced ongoing nausea, chest pain, vomiting, headaches, fatigue and vertigo.[23]
- [45]On 15 April 2019, she alleges she was discharged from the SCUH with a principal diagnosis of gastroparesis secondary to vagus nerve damage. From that time onward, she alleges that she continues to experience ongoing nausea, chest pain, vomiting, headaches, fatigue and vertigo.
- [46]The plaintiff alleges that the first defendant failed to exercise reasonable care as particularised at paragraph 75 of the Amended Statement of Claim. These allegations include a failure to act upon and investigate the signs and symptoms of an infection, namely the oesophageal perforation, in a timely manner and failing to consult a cardiothoracic surgeon upon recognition of oesophageal perforation, mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural effusions.[24] She also alleges a failure to transfer the plaintiff’s care to a cardiothoracic surgeon upon recognition of the oesophageal perforation, mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural effusions.
Pleading
- [47]The relevant paragraphs which are objected to are set out below within the larger paragraphs in which they are sited.
“75. By reason of the matters pleaded herein, the first defendant failed to exercise the reasonable care and skill she was obliged to and thereby breached her duty of care and/or the implied term of the first contract of treatment with the plaintiff by:
- failing to perform the first procedure without due care and skill;
- causing an oesophageal perforation;
- failing to recognise and repair the oesophageal perforation intraoperatively;
- failing, postoperatively, to maintain a high index of suspicion for infection and/or perforation;
- failing to act upon and/or investigate the signs and symptoms of an infection, namely the oesophageal perforation, in a timely manner;
- failing to diagnose and/or teat the perforation in a timely manner;
- failing to consult a cardiothoracic surgeon upon recognition of oesophageal perforation, mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural effusions;
- failing to transfer the plaintiff’s care to a cardiothoracic surgeon upon recognition of oesophageal perforation, mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural effusions;
- failing to recognise that the mediastinal collection, by virtue of both its size and location, was such that it required drainage via thoracotomy at first instance;
- failing to warn, inform and/or advise the plaintiff and/or the plaintiff’s husband as her nominated decision maker, of the treatment options available for a mediastinal collection, namely early/primary thoracotomy, and the risks associated with such treatment options.
75A. Had the first defendant not breached their duty of care in the wav outlined at paragraph 75:
- the claimant would not have sustained the oesophageal perforation: and/or
- the claimant’s mediastinal collection would have been identified and treated in a timely manner and at a point where the mediastinal collection was smaller and less complex: and/or
- the claimant would have, either by choice or on advice, or by virtue of both, undergone primary thoracotomy as the first line of treatment for her mediastinal collection: and
- the claimant's collection would have healed in a timely manner, thereby avoiding prolonged sepsis and resultant vagus nerve damage, which led to the remainder of the claimant’s injuries.
…
- By reason of the matters pleaded herein, the third defendant failed to exercise the reasonable care and skill it was required to and thereby breached its duty of care to the plaintiff by:
- failing to consult a cardiothoracic surgeon for the oesophageal perforation, mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural effusions;
(aa) failing to recognise that the mediastinal collection, by virtue of both its size and location, was such that it required drainage via thoracotomy at first instance;
(aaa) failing to warn, inform and/or advise the plaintiff and/or the plaintiff’s husband as her nominated decision maker, of the treatment options available for a mediastinal collection, namely early/primary thoracotomy, and the risks associated with such treatment options:
- failing to transfer the plaintiffs care to a cardiothoracic surgeon to treat the oesophageal perforation, mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural effusions;
- failing to perform the second procedure with due care and skill;
- causing a further oesophageal perforation;
- failing, postoperatively, to maintain a high index of suspicion for ongoing infection and/or ongoing perforation/leak;
- failing to act upon and/or investigate the signs and symptoms of an ongoing infection and/or an ongoing leak/perforation in a timely manner;
- failing to perform a thoracotomy in a timely manner.
77A. Had the third defendant not breached their duty of care in the way outlined at paragraph 77:
- the claimant would have, either by choice or on advice, or by virtue of both, undergone primary thoracotomy as the first line of treatment for her mediastinal collection; and
- the claimant’s collection would have healed in a timely manner, thereby avoiding prolonged sepsis and resultant vagus nerve damage, which led to the remainder of the claimant's injuries.”
Submissionsofthe parties
- [48]The first defendant and the third defendant submit that the relevant amendments do not arise out of substantially the same facts as a cause of action for which relief has already been claimed in the proceeding.
- [49]They correctly identify, as was conceded by the plaintiff, that each of the two pairs of amendments give rise to new causes of action. It is submitted that this does not form part of the same “story”, as that concept has been explained in the authorities. As with Borsato, it is submitted that the inclusion of a new failure to warn cause of action raises new facts which cannot be described as substantially arising out of the facts as currently pleaded.
- [50]The first defendant and third defendant further submit that the Court would not consider it appropriate to grant leave to make the amendments, even if they arose out of substantially the same facts as a cause of action for which relief has already been claimed. This is by reason of three factors.
- [51]First, there has been an unacceptable delay in this proceeding in the introduction of these amendments. They point to the fact that the relevant circumstances which are the subject of the amendments occurred in December 2018, which is now some five and a half years ago. At the time the amendment was first made, the delay was just over four and a-half years from the incident.
- [52]The first defendant and the third defendant submit that not only is there delay in pursuing this ground, but there is no explanation provided for the delay. They point to Borsato[25] at paragraph [17] where McMurdo J had considered a failure to provide a reasonable explanation for delay as a matter relevant to the exercise of the discretion against granting leave.
- [53]The defendants point to the statutory notices provided on 31 January 2022 under the Personal Injuries Proceedings Act 2002 (Qld) (“PIPA”), which recorded at that date that the plaintiff was not alleging a failure to inform cause of action.[26] That fact was relied upon as part of the relevant circumstances of there being a failure to explain the subsequent change of position of the plaintiff in now bringing a failure to inform case.
- [54]Secondly, it is submitted that it would be futile to give leave to make the amendments because the plaintiff’s expert liability reports do not support the contention that in the exercise of reasonable care, the first defendant should have warned, informed, or advised the plaintiff or her husband as alleged in the amendments.
- [55]Thirdly, it is submitted that the defendants have suffered prejudice by reason of the delay. No specific prejudice is deposed to, but the defendants rely, by analogy, on the principles identified in Brisbane South Regional Authority v Taylor (1996) 186 CLR 541, particularly at 548-9 and 555.[27]
- [56]I turn then to the plaintiff’s contentions. The plaintiff in this case accepts that the failure to warn amendments give rise to new causes of action, but submit that the amendments are of facts which arise substantially out of the facts already pleaded in support of an existing cause of action.
- [57]In support of this submission, the plaintiff pointed to the context in which the objected to amendments are made.
- [58]First, it was said that the first defendant did not contest that she was the person responsible for the primary treatment of the plaintiff and made the decision to undertake the second surgery on 9 December 2018. The plaintiff submits that the inference is open that she must have considered the second surgery appropriate at the time.
- [59]Secondly, it was said that it appeared from the written consent form which was put into evidence that the husband of the plaintiff had provided the relevant consent as the next of kin for that second surgery.
- [60]Thirdly, it was said that there was no dispute that the second surgery had taken place at the third defendant’s hospital.
- [61]Fourthly, it did not appear to be disputed that the requirement of the second surgery was as a consequence of complications following the first surgery.
- [62]Fifthly, reference was made to the expert reports of the plaintiff, namely of Dr Goldstein, which expressed the opinion that the alternative surgery of a thoracotomy was the appropriate surgery to be undertaken in the circumstances, as opposed to the second surgery which was actually undertaken. It was submitted that the engagement between the first defendant and third defendant on the one part, and the plaintiff on the other part, had relevantly commenced on 7 December 2018 and continued thereafter. The plaintiff alleged multiple breaches of duty in the management of her condition, and the injury and loss that was suffered was arising out of the same “story” or sequence of events.
- [63]Sixthly, it was submitted that the policies underlying the applicable statute of limitations were not inappropriately undermined by allowing the amendments. The amendments simply add a ground of recovery arising out of a transaction or occurrence already in suit.
- [64]In relation to whether it is appropriate to grant leave, it was submitted that there was no prejudice to the respondents in the pursuit of the new cause of action. The plaintiff pointed to the absence in any affidavit material of the first defendant deposing to having no recollection of any discussions with the plaintiff’s husband in respect of consent. It was pointed out that a relevant “consent form” for the second surgery formed part of the third defendant’s records.
- [65]The plaintiff accepted that there had been some delay, that there had been a change of position from that recorded in the statutory notice filed as part of the pre-litigation requirements under the PIPA Act on 31 January 2022, and that no explanation had been provided for the delay in seeking the amendment. However, it was submitted that delay in the absence of an appropriate explanation would not, in the circumstances here, result in the exercise of the discretion against allowing an amendment which otherwise met the requirements of the relevant rule.
Determination of the contentions
- [66]I will deal with the two issues separately and in turn.
- (a)Did the facts advanced in the amendment substantially arise out of facts already pleaded in respect of an existing cause of action?
- [67]I find that, in this case, the relevant amendments did substantially arise out of facts already pleaded in respect of an existing cause of action. My reasoning for this finding is as follows.
- [68]First, an analysis of the unobjected to pleading, in my view, supports that the facts of the amendment substantially arise from facts already pleaded for other causes of action. I will use the pleading against the first respondent to illustrate this conclusion. Dealing with the first defendant, the following factual framework is present in the unobjected portions of the pleading:
- After the first operation and after the oesophageal perforation and mediastinal collection and bilateral pleural infusions had been identified, there was a failure to consult a cardiac surgeon;[28]
- There was a corresponding failure to transfer the plaintiff’s care to a cardiac surgeon upon the recognition of the matters previously identified;[29]
- At the same time, there was a failure to recognise that the mediastinal collection was in a form that required drainage via an alternative surgery known as thoracotomy, at first instance;[30]
- If those breaches identified above had not occurred, the plaintiff’s mediastinal collection would have been identified and treated in a timely manner at a point when the collection was smaller and less complex;[31] and
- The plaintiff’s mediastinal collection would have healed in a timely manner and thereby avoided prolonged sepsis and resultant vagus nerve damage.[32]
- [69]That framework contains existing allegations that a sub-specialist surgeon ought to have been consulted in the circumstances, that care of the plaintiff ought to have been transferred to that sub-specialist, and that the alternative surgery ought to have been undertaken at first instance. Each of those matters was then causative of, inter alia, the subsequent complications which occurred by the mediastinal collection not being addressed by the alternative surgery.
- [70]In my view, the new facts clearly arise from the same story as revealed by the framework.
- [71]What is being added is as follows:
- The first defendant failed to warn, inform and/or advise the plaintiff or her nominated decision-maker of the treatment options available for a mediastinal collection, namely early/primary thoracotomy, and the risk associated with such treatment options.[33] This allegation has to be understood in the context of the unobjected to pleading that the thoracotomy was the form of alternative surgery which should have been undertaken instead of the second surgery.
- As a result of, inter alia, the above failure the claimant would have, either by choice or on advice, or by virtue of both, undergone primary thoracotomy as the first line of treatment for her mediastinal collection.[34]
- [72]What has been added as a positive plea in the form of a duty to advise and inform the plaintiff that the alternative was an available treatment option is a natural reflection of the existing unobjected to plea, namely that the performance of the first defendant’s duty included a duty to recognise that the alternative surgery should have been undertaken first, instead of the second surgery which was actually undertaken.
- [73]In my view, the new facts must be seen as part of the same story arising from the unobjected to facts. Examined in this way, the amendments do not offend against any underlying policy considerations which underlie the Limitations of Actions Act 1974 (Qld).
- [74]In Borsato, McMurdo J found that the particular facts underlying those new causes of action, being a failure to warn, did not substantially arise out of the same facts already pleaded. Each case turns on its own facts. In Borsato, the existing causes of action against the third to fifth defendants in that case concerned alleged negligence in the third and fourth defendant’s surgery. The addition of the failure to warn case in that proceeding raised new or substantially different causation and loss facts which were materially different to the facts which had been pleaded in respect of the existing causes of action. They involved, for the first time, an allegation that the negligent surgery would likely not have occurred at all. It was this material change in the facts which produced the substantially different causation and loss scenario.
- [75]That is not the same case here.
- [76]In this case, the causation counterfactual does not materially change. The unobjected to pleading is premised on the fact that the alternative surgery should have been undertaken instead of the second surgery. The unobjected counterfactual is that the collection would have healed in a timely manner and the complications from the second surgery would have been avoided.
- [77]The new objected to facts operate on the same counterfactual.
- [78]On this basis, Borsato is distinguishable.
- [79]The above analysis applies equally to the position of the third defendant. Broadly similar allegations, both unobjected to and objected to, are made for the third defendant.[35]
- [80]An additional fact pleaded against the third defendant is that there was a failure to perform a thoracotomy in a timely manner.[36] That fact was not alleged against the first defendant, presumably because the other pleas against the defendants were that a sub-specialist thoracic surgeon ought to have been consulted and the care of the plaintiff handed over to that sub-specialist. The pleaded case seems to proceed on the premise that the alternative surgery would have been undertaken by the sub-specialist if there had not been the pleaded breaches of duty.
- [81]This additional fact merely further emphasises that the unobjected to pleading contains facts which allege that the alternative surgery ought to have been undertaken prior to the second surgery.
(b) Is the granting of leave appropriate?
- [82]Moving on to the second issue, I find that it is appropriate to allow the amendments sought in the circumstances of this case. I have come to the conclusion based on the following factors.
- [83]First, I accept that there has been delay in seeking to make these amendments. The first and third defendants are also correct that there has not been any real attempt to explain the reason for the delay. I accept that that this is a factor which is present and is one which weighs against the grant of leave.
- [84]Secondly, I accept that there can be cases where the delay is of such a length that it is likely by its very existence to carry with it the implication of prejudice. Brisbane South Regional Health Authority v Taylor[37] was a case in point where an extension to a time limit was sought. There, the delay had been some 16 years from the events underlying the causes of action. As has often been observed, delay of a lengthy period can have a tendency to deteriorate the quality of justice. What has been forgotten can rarely be shown.[38]
- [85]Lengthy delay can often be coupled with other evidence which manifest palpable prejudice. There may have been the loss of medical records which may have recorded salient facts in relation to advice which may or may not have been given. There may have been at the time of the relevant events little or no documentation in relation to advice which may or may not have been given. Often there will be affidavit material from a defendant involved indicating that they have little or no recollection of what advice may have been given in relation to particular procedures, or indeed no recollection of what their usual practice was at the time.
- [86]The delay here is not of such a length, being under six years from the hearing and under five years from the filing of the amendments, that it would cause the inference of material prejudice against the defendants by the allowance of the amendments. There is a written consent form in existence for the second surgery. Nowhere on that consent form is the alternative surgery identified. There is no affidavit from the first defendant in particular, (or anybody else) deposing to an absence of a recollection of what occurred in relation to the decision-making process or the provision of advice in respect of the second surgery.
- [87]Whilst it is true that the relevant 31 January 2022 pre-proceeding notices under the PIPA expressly identified that there was no failure to warn case being advanced, it is equally true that the general circumstances surrounding the care and treatment of the plaintiff, which specifically included the undertaking of the second surgery, was raised prior to the expiry of the three year limitation period. The pre-proceeding notices included express allegations to the effect that the alternative surgery ought to have been undertaken as a first priority, rather than the second surgery.[39] This would necessarily have directed the first defendant and the third defendant’s attention to, at the very least, the thought processes and justification of the first defendant in relation to the undertaking of the second surgery rather than the alternative surgery.
- [88]In all of those circumstances, even though the amendments were made after a period of delay, which was not adequately explained, the absence of substantial prejudice to the first defendant and third defendant, in my view, points firmly to the exercise of the discretion to allow the amendment.
- [89]Thirdly, I do not accept that the making of the amendments will be futile. The argument put forward by the first defendant and the third defendant was that there is no expert evidence that there was a failure to warn, inform and/or advise in the terms pleaded.
- [90]I accept the plaintiff’s counter-submission to this proposition. The plaintiff submits that the finding of a breach of the alleged duty is a finding of fact which the Court can reach in the absence of express expert opinion on the issue. It is ultimately a question for the judicial officer as the finder of fact as to whether there was an actionable failure to warn, inform and/or advise, and that fact finding task can be completed regardless of an absence of expert evidence to that effect.
- [91]In any event, Dr Goldstein gives a medical opinion that the alternative surgery which should have been undertaken, as opposed to the second surgery. That evidence, if accepted, would self-evidently provide a basis for a finding that there was a failure to warn, inform and/or advise that the alternative surgery was the surgery which should have been undertaken.
- [92]The existence of that evidentiary material by itself disposes of the futility submission. Whether that opinion will ultimately be accepted at trial is an entirely different question. I note that there is competing expert evidence to the effect that the second surgery was entirely appropriate at the time it occurred.
Conclusions
- [93]As a result of the above reasoning, the first defendant’s and third defendant’s respective applications brought pursuant to r 379 of the UCPR to disallow or strike out paragraphs 75(j) and 75A(c) and 77(aaa) and 77A(a), respectively, will be dismissed. The two applications brought by the plaintiff for leave to make those amendments succeed. Leave to make each of the objected to amendments will be granted under r 376 of the UCPR.
- [94]The orders of the Court will be that:
- 1.The application of the first defendant filed 8 March 2024 be dismissed.
- 2.The application of the third defendant filed 11 April 2024 be dismissed.
- 3.The plaintiff is given leave to make the amendments which appear as paragraphs 75(j), 75A(c), 77(aaa) and 77A(a) of the Amended Statement of Claim filed 2 June 2023.
Footnotes
[1] UCPR r 375(4).
[2] Draney v Barry [2002] 1 Qd R 145 at [57], cited in Australian Golf Management Corporation Pty Ltd v Logan City Council [2023] QSC 222.
[3] Thomas v State of Queensland [2001] QCA 336
[4] Paul v Westpac Banking Corporation [2017] 2 Qd R 96 at [15].
[5] [1998] QCA 372.
[6] [1996] 1 Qd R 65.
[7] Allonnor Ply Ltd v Doran [1998] QCA 372 at [8]
[8] Two surgeons and the State of Queensland, which was said to be liable for each surgeon’s conduct. Prior to the amendment, those particular defendants were only pursued for causes of action based on allegedly negligent surgery.
[9] Borsato v Campbell [2006] QSC 191 at [17].
[10] See, for example, the discussion in Harnett v Hynes [2010] QCA 65 at [36] to [45].
[11] Paragraph 1 Amended Statement of Claim (“ASOC”).
[12] Paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 ASOC.
[13] Paragraphs 2 and 3 of the Defence of the first defendant
[14] Paragraph 6 ASOC.
[15] Paragraph 4 Amended Defence of the third defendant filed 8 April 2024.
[16] Paragraph 8 Defence of the first defendant.
[17] Paragraphs 10 and 11 ASOC, paragraphs 9 and 10 Defence of the first defendant.
[18] Paragraph 25 ASOC, admitted at paragraph 24 Defence of the first defendant.
[19] The mediastinum is the part of the chest that lies between the sternum and the spinal column, and between the lungs. This area contains the heart, large blood vessels, windpipe (trachea), thymus gland, oesophagus, and connective tissues.
[20] Paragraph 29 ASOC, essentially admitted at paragraph 28 of the Defence of the first defendant.
[21] Vasoplegia is a condition characterised by persistent low systemic vascular resistance despite a normal or high cardiac index, resulting in profound and uncontrolled vasodilation. Vasoplegia may occur due to various conditions, including cardiac failure, sepsis, and postcardiac surgery.
[22] Paragraph 38 ASOC..
[23] Paragraph 65 ASOC..
[24] Paragraph 75(e) - (g) ASOC.
[25] Borsato v Campbell [2006] QSC 191 at [17].
[26] See the answer to Q15 in the documents.
[27] See also the discussion in Borsato at [17].
[28] Paragraph 75(g).
[29] Paragraph 75(h).
[30] Paragraph 75(i).
[31] Paragraph 75A.(b).
[32] Paragraph 75A.(d).
[33] Paragraph 75(j).
[34] Paragraph 75A(c).
[35] First defendant 75(g) - third defendant 77(a); 75(h) - 77(b); 77(i); 77(aa); 77A(b).
[36] Paragraph 77(g).
[37] (1996) 186 CLR 541.
[38] Barker v Wingo (1972) 407 U.S. J14 at 532.
[39] See item 14 in each of the pre-trial notices.